Kelly Criterion

· 4 min · 988 words

finance/kelly criterionfinance/volality dragcomputer science/game theorymathematics/probabilitiestopic/science

Takeaways (TL;DR)

In the long run, volatility acts as a mathematical drag on wealth: even with a positive average return, excessive variance reduces your compound growth rate, and if that variance is too high, it guarantees a typical outcome of bankruptcy despite a theoretically increasing “average” wealth.

1. Preliminaries

😈 Pick up some college formulas so that you will not get lost in elementary maths later.

Definition 1 (Almost Sure Convergence). For a sequence of random variables X1,X2,...,Xn,...X_1, X_2, ..., X_n, ... and a random variable XX, we say that XnX_n converges almost surely (a.s.) to XX, denoted by Xna.s.XX_n \xrightarrow{\text{a.s.}} X as nn \rightarrow \infty, if

P(limnXn=X)=1.(1)\mathbb{P}\big(\lim_{n\to\infty} X_n = X\big)=1. \tag{1}

Theorem 1 (Strong Law of Large Numbers). Let X1,X2,X_1, X_2, \dots be a sequence of independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.) random variables with finite expected value E[X]=μ\mathbb{E}[X] = \mu. The sample average converges almost surely to the expected value:

1ni=1nXia.s.μas n.(2)\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i \xrightarrow{\text{a.s.}} \mu \quad \text{as } n \to \infty. \tag{2}

Theorem 2 (Central Limit Theorem). Let X1,X2,...X_1, X_2, ... be i.i.d. random variables with mean μ\mu and finite variance σ2>0\sigma^2 > 0. Then the random variable Zn=i=1nXinμσnZ_n = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n X_i - n\mu}{\sigma\sqrt{n}} converges in distribution to a standard normal random variable:

limnP(Znz)=Φ(z),zR,(3)\lim_{n \to \infty} \mathbb{P}(Z_n \le z) = \Phi(z), \quad \forall z \in \mathbb{R}, \tag{3}


where Φ(z)\Phi(z) is the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution N(0,1)\mathcal{N}(0,1).

Theorem 3 (Jensen’s Inequality). If φ\varphi is a convex function, then φ(E[X])E[φ(X)]\varphi(\mathbb{E}[X]) \le \mathbb{E}[\varphi(X)]. Conversely, if ψ\psi is a concave function (such as ln(x)\ln(x)), then:

E[ψ(X)]ψ(E[X]).(4)\mathbb{E}[\psi(X)] \le \psi(\mathbb{E}[X]). \tag{4}

Equality holds if and only if XX is a constant almost surely or ψ\psi is linear.

2. Problem Setup

Consider a discrete-time repeated game over periods t=1,,nt = 1, \dots, n. Let W0>0W_0 > 0 be the initial capital. Let R1,R2,R_1, R_2, \dots be a sequence of i.i.d. random variables representing the return rate at each step, such that Rt>1R_t > -1 almost surely (to ensure wealth remains positive). Let ff be the fixed fraction of wealth wagered in each period (the strategy). The wealth process evolves multiplicatively:

Wn=Wn1(1+fRn)=W0i=1n(1+fRi).(5)W_n = W_{n-1}(1 + f R_n) = W_0 \prod_{i=1}^n (1 + f R_i). \tag{5}


To evaluate if the game is favorable, we could calculate two metrics:

  • The Arithmetic Mean: μ=E[R]\mu = \mathbb{E}[R]. This describes the average wealth across infinite parallel universes (Ensemble Average).
  • The Geometric Mean: g=E[ln(1+fR)]g = \mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)]. This describes the growth rate of a single trajectory over time (Time Average).
Intuitively, μ\mu sounds like a good measure: if μ\mu is large, it means we eventually make that much money, right?

3. Expected Return vs. Typical Return

To understand the asymptotic behavior of WnW_n, we must linearize the multiplicative process by taking the natural logarithm.

lnWn=lnW0+i=1nln(1+fRi).(6)\ln W_n = \ln W_0 + \sum_{i=1}^n \ln(1 + f R_i). \tag{6}

Let Zi=ln(1+fRi)Z_i = \ln(1 + f R_i) be the log-return for period ii. Since RiR_i are i.i.d., ZiZ_i are also i.i.d. We can now analyze the average growth rate per period, denoted GnG_n:

Gn=1nln(WnW0)=1ni=1nZi.(7)G_n = \frac{1}{n} \ln \left( \frac{W_n}{W_0} \right) = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n Z_i. \tag{7}

By Theorem 1, as nn \to \infty, the sample average GnG_n converges almost surely to the true expected value of the log-returns:

limn1ni=1nln(1+fRi)a.s.E[ln(1+fR)].(8)\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n \ln(1 + f R_i) \xrightarrow{\text{a.s.}} \mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)]. \tag{8}

Let g(f)=E[ln(1+fR)]g(f) = \mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)]. Note this is the geometric mean growth rate we defined above. By exponentiating the result, we find the behavior of wealth for a typical investor:

WnW0eng(f)almost surely.W_n \approx W_0 e^{n \cdot g(f)} \quad \text{almost surely}.

We can therefore draw the conclusion: the long-term capital of any single investor is determined solely by g(f)g(f). The arithmetic mean μ\mu is not directly relevant to the typical outcome because it is dominated by vanishingly rare outlier events that the single investor will likely never experience.

But doesn’t a maximized μ\mu mean max return in long term?

Using Theorem 3 on the concave function ln()\ln(\cdot):

E[ln(1+fR)]<ln(1+fE[R]).\mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)] < \ln(1 + f\cdot\mathbb{E}[R]).
E[ln(1+fR)]Expected Log Return g(f)ln(1+fμExpected Arithmetic Wealth).\underbrace{\mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + fR)]}_{\text{Expected Log Return } g(f)} \le \ln(\underbrace{1 + f\mu}_{\text{Expected Arithmetic Wealth}}).

The term ln(1+fμ)\ln(1 + f \mu) represents the “theoretical” growth if there were no volatility. The difference between the two sides is the volatility drag. This proves mathematically that variance reduces the compound growth rate.

4. Kelly Criterion

Here is when Kelly Criterion 1 kicks in. Since WnW_n is driven by eng(f)e^{n \cdot g(f)}, maximizing terminal wealth is equivalent to maximizing the exponent g(f)g(f).
Objective:

f=argmaxf g(f)=argmaxf E[ln(1+fR)].f^* = \underset{f}{\arg\max} \ g(f) = \underset{f}{\arg\max} \ \mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)].


Since the logarithmic function is concave, we find the maximum by setting the first derivative to zero:

g(f)=ddfE[ln(1+fR)]=E[R1+fR]=0.g'(f) = \frac{d}{df} \mathbb{E}[\ln(1 + f R)] = \mathbb{E}\left[ \frac{R}{1 + f R} \right] = 0.


An example of a binary game. Consider the classic coin-toss scenario:

  • Win: Return +b+b (odds) with probability pp.
  • Lose: Return 1-1 (loss of wager) with probability q=1pq = 1-p.
    The expectation in the derivative becomes:
    E[R1+fR]=p(b1+fb)+q(11f)=0.\mathbb{E}\left[ \frac{R}{1 + f R} \right] = p \left( \frac{b}{1 + fb} \right) + q \left( \frac{-1}{1 - f} \right) = 0.
    Solving for ff:
  1. Move the negative term:

    pb1+fb=q1f.\frac{pb}{1 + fb} = \frac{q}{1 - f}.
  2. Cross-multiply:

    pb(1f)=q(1+fb).pb(1 - f) = q(1 + fb).
  3. Expand:

    pbpbf=q+qfb.pb - pbf = q + qfb.
  4. Group terms with ff:

  5. Solve for ff^*:

    f=pbqb.f^* = \frac{pb - q}{b}.


    This formula, known as the Kelly Criterion, identifies the exact leverage ff^* that maximizes the geometric growth rate. Betting more than ff^* increases arithmetic return but decreases the log return (due to Jensen’s inequality/volatility drag), eventually leading to a negative growth rate and sure ruin.

Footnotes

  1. Proposed by the cool guy John Larry Kelly Jr, a researcher at Bell Labs in 1956. He was an associate of Claude Shannon!